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I don't think I understand the first sentence of your original comment. I am confused by the language of "wealth" and "money." Can we speak of wealth only without diminishing your point? A casual reading suggests that the fast rate of wealth accumulation among the wealthy implies that the new wealth of the wealthy was taken from poorer people. If that isn't accurate, can you clarify? The second sentence is also hard to parse. If it (the money supply? the total quantity of wealth?) is finite, how is it not a zero-sum game?